Why that word?

Neither Homer nor Virgil [sic] used it [hagios]. But it does occur a few times in scattered places, so it was available for the translators of the Septuagint to use if they chose to. So, why did they choose to? I believe, and I am not alone in believing it, that they chose hagios because it had the fewest negative connotations that came with the pagan concept of the holy. In order to convey what they knew to be true of Yahweh, they very carefully chose a word that was almost unknown.— Lectures in Old Testament Theology, page 65

<idle musing>
I know that idea has fallen out of favor of late, but I still think it makes good sense...
</idle musing>